In Romans 5:20 we see that the law entered that the offense might abound. This is talking about the offense of one man (Adam) and that is made clear in verse 18 where it says that by the offense of one judgment came upon all men unto condemnation. The law entered so the entire world could be declared guilty before God. We must notice here that it is not offenses that is being talked about but the offense (singular). It is not talking about actions on our part but is talking about the one offense that Adam did which was passed on (Rom 5:12) to all men.

The law entered with Moses that the offense of one man might abound and be put to the account of the whole world. The word abound means to increase or “to do or make to be more”. The law did not enter to straighten everything out. It entered to make one mans transgression placed upon every human being. We see throughout Romans chapter 5 that the sin talked about is the sin of one man (Adam) and it is NOT talking about any actions or deeds we ourselves may commit. So if is not our actions, where did sin abound?

Verse 20 says that the law entered that sin might abound. It’s saying the law entered so that Adams transgression would be shown as having been passed to every person in the entire human race. Note the past tense of this word…sin abounded. I am sure we have all heard at one time or another that the term there was said to be abounds which made us think that it was in the present tense instead of past tense. When you look at the word as past tense it takes on a totally different meaning of course.

When reading this verse in its proper context, is it possible that sin does not abound anymore but that it abounded in times past? I think that is exactly what Paul is saying here. I know we have all heard sermons preached that tell us that sin abounds today but that is not what it is saying. It is not talking about places like San Francisco or any other part of the world where we have been told evils lurks in every corner. This has nothing to do with that at all. Sin abounded under the law. If sin abounded under the law and where there is no law sin is not imputed (held against anyone) does sin still abound? I think it is clear that sin does not abound anymore. Again keeping in mind that sin mentioned here are not our actions and deeds.